So why are East Asian languages so different from one another despite their extremely close proximity?

So why are East Asian languages so different from one another despite their extremely close proximity? I think Korean and mandarin may share a slight connection but Japanese seems to be completely isolated. Apart from okinawan (basically just Japanese), no other language is related to Japanese. Yeah it uses the Chinese script but that says nothing about actual relationship of the languages. Hungarian and English share the same script and yet they couldn’t be further away from each other. So, what gives?

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  1. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    >okinawan (basically just Japanese)
    that's japanese imperialistic propaganda. uchinaguchi and japanese are mutually incomprehensible.

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      When I said that it’s basically Japanese, I was referring to the fact that both okinawan and Japanese derive from Proto japonic. Okinawan is the ONLY known language in existence that is related to Japanese

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      Yeah, but so is Glaswegian and that's still the same language

      • 2 months ago
        Anonymous

        if that's applied, all Slavic languages are counted as dialects of just one language.
        (Spanish and French aren't, because of the different substratum.)

        • 2 months ago
          Anonymous

          >if that's applied, all Slavic languages are counted as dialects of just one language.
          Yes.
          But I mean, it's all spectral anyway. I actually don't know what (if any) rigorous guidelines are used to measure "intelligability". I think at a certain point, one would end up viewing all languages as accents of human.

  2. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    >I think Korean and mandarin may share a slight connection but Japanese seems to be completely isolated
    actually japanese and korean are much closer than mandarin

  3. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    Do you have any actual evidence that there is greater lexical distance between these languages?

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      Rather, those languages are classified to be so because no attempt to relate them has ever been successful.

  4. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    geographical barriers like mountains and the sea

  5. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    Konichiwa you little jit
    A lot of Japanese is modified Chinese, fwiw
    About 1/6 of the everyday speech according to the Pedia

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      there's a lot more to genetic relations among languages than just vocabulary

  6. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    To take the premise of your Q seriously, some of it may be the linguistic evolution of Chink, which I think didn't even have tones.

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      you need to look at more than just vocab

  7. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    some of you seem to misunderstand it, but
    Sino-Japanese (kango) and Sino-Korean words aren't the Chinese loanwords.
    Most of them were invented by Japanese or Koreans themselves, so that the words are adjusted to the Chinese linguistic principles deliberately and such vocabularies are separately recognized from their traditional words.

  8. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    It seems like it was normal for there to be a ton of families in relatively small areas before recent history. Look at how many families Papua New Guinea or West Africa or pre-Columbian America had, Asia was probably like that too before the expansion of Sinitic removed most of the diversity. And they (the Chinese) were strong and numerous enough to avoid being replaced by Mongolic or Turkic speakers but too centralized and brittle to finish off Koreanic, Japonic, Austroasiatic etc before people speaking those languages adopted enough of their culture to resist them militarily and culturally

  9. 2 months ago
    Anonymous

    Modern Japanese are branch of old Korean aristocrats who consoomed too much Chinese/Buddhist culture and then tried to distance themselves from it by creating a fake national identity. Their language is a mix of 2000 years removed from Korea. Mixed with Chinese influence evolving outside the Chinese imperial power.

    Korea was also a Chinese territory until the 18th or something century when Japanese separated it from China and took it under its wings. Their language naturally comes from traditional location + heavy Chinese influence.

    Both Japanese + Korean did undergo a major Buddhist influenced written language reformation. Korean's Hangul is rooted in Phagspa (Yuan dynasty imperial language rooted in Tibetan language which is rooted in Siddham script which is a variant of in Sanskrit used by the Buddhists). Japanese Kana system is also ordered in Siddham system. Thus both of these written/spoken syllables language reflect a closer tie to English/Indo-European language due to rooted in Sanskrit.

    Chinese language is rooted in native Oracle Bone script, and is the basis of their logographics language. Both Korean/Japanese keep parts of that Chinese logographics Hanja/Kanji and augment themselves.

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      language/=writiing system

      • 2 months ago
        Anonymous

        Next you'll say language is independent of writing, vocabular, and grammar.

        And argue that its something that is innate that is outside of human understanding

        • 2 months ago
          Anonymous

          Vietnamese didn't become a romance language when they adopted the latin script

        • 2 months ago
          Anonymous

          linguistic lineage is
          independent from the writing system
          dependent to the vocabulary
          partially dependent to the grammar

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            Writing system influences the creation of vocabs/grammars. Its not independent of it. Its all a big cycle

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            Not really. The overwhelming majority of people and virtually all women were illiterate as recently as three hundred years ago yet they still spoke recognizable versions of modern languages

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            And you're saying writing hasn't helped people learn/change/understand/develop language today?

            Think carefully

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            People already know how to speak their native languages before they learn to write. Writing is the shadow of speech nothing more

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            So you're saying writing doesn't do anything? Are you serious? Think carefully.

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            It doesn't. Vietnamese for example had one of the most dramatic changes to its writing system of any language in the early 20th century and it made no difference

          • 2 months ago
            Anonymous

            >Writing system influences the creation of vocabs/grammars
            no it doesn't

    • 2 months ago
      Anonymous

      >Modern Japanese are branch of old Korean aristocrats
      >Thus both of these written/spoken syllables language reflect a closer tie to English/Indo-European language due to rooted in Sanskrit.

      hello, Kim

      • 2 months ago
        Anonymous

        Actually the Siddham script has its roots in semitic languages meaning that Japanese and Korean are actually Semitic languages

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