When mexico obtained independence in 1821, were they the same race as the indian tribes in america like the comanche or hopi?

When mexico obtained independence in 1821, were they the same race as the indian tribes in america like the comanche or hopi? If this is true, what did mexicans from mexico think of the 'natives'?

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  1. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous
  2. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    what?

  3. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Not really. Under Spanish imperial rule, the majority of settlers came from Europe. Some Mexicans did integrate with some natives through marriage but the majority thought of them as inferior due to the social hierarchy put in place by the former Spanish Empire. Not to mention the institution of slavery was to keep natives and blacks under the grip of the Mexican Empire when it gained independence.

  4. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    No
    The population of Mexico (the territory) fell a lot because of European diseases for a century and a half. It hit rock bottom in the mid 1600s. And from that point it begun to grow a lot again, but with a Spanish mixed population that had defenses against European diseases.
    The same thing happened in most of Spanish America. The lowest point in population was the 1600s due to the death of natives, and then the population begins to grow again, but it's a mixed race one.

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Did they have their own version of mainfest destiny where they wanted to get rid of all the tribes and settle mexicans in untamed lands?

      • 3 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        No
        Don't forget the Spanish Empire lasted 3 centuries, it was very different in the 1500s compared to the 1700s
        The American Spanish Empire was not made of colonies originally, it was made of kingdoms, with the same legal status as Naples or the Netherlands or Portugal.
        The original intention of the Spanish conquistadors in the 1500s was to become something like feudal lords who had natives work the land for them. The same thing which existed in Europe. The main languages continued being Nahuatl, Maya, Quechua etc, the Spanish learnt native languages, the Jesuits wrote grammars and dictionaries of native languages, they made pacts with local native aristocracies, so that natives often had 2 simultaneous ruling class, the Spanish one and the Native one. Native languages actually expanded beyong their borders the first century and a half of the Spanish empire.
        But it failed because of biology, the native population with no defenses against European diseases fell for a century and a half, until in the mid 1600s the majority of the population in many regions was now the Spanish admixed one, and it was hard to find natives to make them do hard work as feudal serfs. In much of the Spanish America pure natives became extinct. With the big exceptions being Bolivia-Peru, perhaps due to living in remote mountains with no white people around, and central America, like Guatemala, which had very few Spaniards.

        Nobody knows the population of the Americas before 1492, but it's very possible that between 1491 and 1650 the population of Mexico went from 6 millions, all natives, to 600.000 mostly mixed race and Spanish people.

        • 3 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          mexico was majority indigenous until 1800 and possibly even throughout the 1800s until after the revolution, when urbanization made indians move to the cities and assimilate

      • 3 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        >When mexico obtained independence in 1821, were they the same race as the indian tribes in america like the comanche or hopi? If this is true, what did mexicans from mexico think of the 'natives'?
        No. The population was mostly mestizo with a primarily European-descended upper class. They looked down on the natives just like the White Americans, though they did have a better time assimilating to Mexican society

        >Did they have their own version of mainfest destiny where they wanted to get rid of all the tribes and settle mexicans in untamed lands?
        Kind of but they failed to really populate the Northern territories. The tribes up north like the Comanche and Apache detested Mexicans and plenty of Indigenous Americans like Geronimo hated Mexicans far more than Americans.

        • 3 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          This is probably my favorite part of Mexican history, like I read a book about Kit Carson and when he got to New Mexico there were so few Mexicans that many Mexican laws didn't apply. Like how did they fail so hard at settling the north? Contrast Argentina's conquest of its south.

          • 3 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            >Like how did they fail so hard at settling the north?
            Partly due to the hot climate and low population in Mexico. But honestly it's primarily due to how shit the Mexican government was (and still is). Mexico had a great starting position but unfortunately for the country they screwed it all up almost immediately

          • 3 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            Mexico has two oceans they can trade with. Lots of farmland. Lots of labor. Great weather outside the north. Next to america so they don't have to worry about foreign invasions. Yet have somehow fricked it all up lol. Hate to say it but mexicans are too dumb and too violent to make any society work. The spanish should've murdered all of them and imported just spaniards. We would've had a great neighbor and a rich beautifull mexico.

          • 3 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            Bc the natives like Comanche and apache were a terror to deal with. Make the cartel look like pussies.

  5. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    They were different tribes

  6. 3 weeks ago
    ࿇ C Œ M G E N V S ࿇

    YOU ARE MORON.

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      It's you are A moron, ESL-kun.

      • 3 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        moron

        • 3 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          Stupid ESL

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Go cry to the janny again you self hating beaner

  7. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Most Mexicans descend from both the Spanish conquerors and the dense urban populations of pre-contact Mesoamerica. So the less culturally sophisticated peoples of northern Mexico and the US southwest were often viewed as barbarians.
    (or at least the non-urban ones, idk what they thought about the Pueblo and such)

  8. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    I've been reading about southwest tribes, apparently the Navajo referred to Mexicans and Spaniards by the same word (idk if it's still the case now), so there wasn't much differentiation between the two hundreds of years ago. I assume that probably means most of the Mexicans they encountered back in the 19th century were Spanish descended

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      mexicans and spaniards are both nonwhite and brown so that makes sense

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      most indians use the same word for mestizos and for whites since we're both "foreign" in their eyes
      much like how spaniards use the same word for indians and mestizos (indio)

  9. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Spanish is first class. Spanish born in Mexico is second class. Spanish-native mixed mestizo third class. Then native is 4th and last class. Independent is all about the 3rd class mestizo revolt. They include the native aswell but mestizo already in majority

  10. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Even the natives in Mexico don't really have that much in common with the Natives in the South-West. The Aztec were said to have come from up north but they were someone regarded the way you might view a migratory conqueror, as somewhat uncivilized and lacking knowledge of local custom.

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