Why have the east germanic languages died out despite seemingly being the most succesful?

Gothic, vandalic, burgundian, these were the major german nations in the period of migration, but all their languages are gone now. The unimportant west germanic languages have inhereted the earth. And why was it the 'east' germanic people that conquered west and southern europe? Where were the west germanic people at the time?

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  1. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    Germanic were not Indo-European languages
    they were a substrate.. we have more and more evidence of this now

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      nah not really

      https://i.imgur.com/IteYnfI.jpg

      Gothic, vandalic, burgundian, these were the major german nations in the period of migration, but all their languages are gone now. The unimportant west germanic languages have inhereted the earth. And why was it the 'east' germanic people that conquered west and southern europe? Where were the west germanic people at the time?

      I think for the same reason as why Frankish didn't continue in France, Norse in Russia & French in England. The people who brought the languages were always small elites and got assimilated after some time. Sadly, Crimean Gothic died out 500 years ago before it produced any texts.

      • 1 month ago
        Anonymous

        >Sadly, Crimean Gothic died out 500 years ago before it produced any texts
        Before this war broke out I was preparing to visit the ruins at Mangup, to see the last outpost of both the Goths and the Romans. I've heard it's otherworldly.

      • 1 month ago
        Anonymous
        • 1 month ago
          Anonymous

          every indo european branch has a small substrate. Germanics are still the most indo-european people of them all

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Why don't you tell us that the sky is blue?
            This is not a semantics game.
            The point is that the Germanic language has a lot of non-IE heritage, which could place it very well as a substrate.
            so does culture (as evidenced by my collage).
            and this is not just among the Germans, continuity of non-IE culture is clear in other peoples

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >Germanic language has a lot of non-IE heritage
            the stance that Germanic inherits an unexpectedly high amount of foreign words as compared to other IE branches is rejected among mainstream scholars, afaik

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            You don't understand the words you're using. All Germanic languages are IE. The proposed Germanic substrate has a few similarities as Greek, but Greek has a far stronger pre-IE substrate. The two proposed substrates even have some striking similarities, but Greek is still an IE language.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >Germanic language has a lot of non-IE heritage
            the stance that Germanic inherits an unexpectedly high amount of foreign words as compared to other IE branches is rejected among mainstream scholars, afaik

            you didn't read the article and didn't answer anything
            Why is it not a substrate? read the article
            You yourself said that there are similarities between Greek and Germanic substratum.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            The confusion here is your own, in not knowing what the word substrate means. I'll concede only that there likely is a pre-IE substrate in Germanic languages, only because of the similarities with other pre-IE substrates like in Greek.

            But in Greek, we can't be sure where these 1000 or so words came from, Minoan, some kind of Paleoeuropean perhaps, Phoenician possibly, etc. The Germanic substrate is much less significant and far more questionable, they could just as well gotten some words from Greeks they traded with.

            Don't make this an I1 thread like they are one of yours, I know you're that G2a troony now shilling FBK importance where there is none. I1's MRCA was alive near the middle or end of the Bell Beaker period in what was likely some part of northern Europe, they were herders genetically and culturally and spoke a language that was almost entirely IE. As other anons have said most IE languages have substrates or potential substrates.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >The point is that the Germanic language has a lot of non-IE heritage, which could place it very well as a substrate.
            a substrate is the remnants of a language in another one. what language is german the substrate OF?
            you have no idea what you are saying.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            [...]

            you didn't read the article and didn't answer anything
            Why is it not a substrate? read the article
            You yourself said that there are similarities between Greek and Germanic substratum.

            You don't even seem to understand what the word "substrate" means. It's not something the language is, it's something the language has.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >Germanics are still the most indo-european people of them all
            the most indo-european language is Lithuanian hence proto-baltic

        • 1 month ago
          Anonymous

          I have such a grave one half stones throw from where I'm sitting.
          i'll take my metal detector once i'm done burning away bushes and saplings.

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      a little reading is ... well, not really a dangerous thing but certainly a pitiful one. consider this guy. he read somewhere that germanic languages seem to have a non-IE substrate (vulgo: some non-IE population acquired an IE language but preserved some shadow of its former language in it), and now he spews meaningless bullshit like

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      Here is an intredasting new study that proposes Pre-Germanic having been brought over the Baltic Sea to East Scandinavia first and then spread west and south from there.

      https://www.biorxiv.org/content/10.1101/2024.03.13.584607v1

      • 1 month ago
        Anonymous

        >the Ostrogoths and Visigoths are predominantly of Southern European ancestry implying the adoption of Gothic culture
        I think that may imply something else entirely lol

      • 1 month ago
        Anonymous

        >the Ostrogoths and Visigoths are predominantly of Southern European ancestry implying the adoption of Gothic culture
        I think that may imply something else entirely lol

        >>the Ostrogoths and Visigoths are predominantly of Southern European ancestry implying the adoption of Gothic culture
        Isn't it the same thing for most German tribes? Like the Franks and Burgundians being predominantly gallo-germanic

        • 1 month ago
          Anonymous

          They still should have had a detectable scandinavian signal as per the paper. The Ostrogoths and Visigoths presumably had none.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Uuuuuh celto-baltic chads? I don't know, I'm tired and know nothing about this stuff lol

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            In Spain the few samples from the visigothic era were from the 600-700s in which they already had mixed marriages with natives.

            There have been no visigoth samples tested from the time they arrived (400-500s), a time in which mixed marriages (catholics and arians) were forbidden.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            two of the seven carbondate to before 600 AD

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Post DNAs or news.

            Anyways they probably were from areas with already existing urban settlements like Tarragona or similar.

            Most Goths went to live to remote isolated areas where no one has DNA tested them.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            The dark green is scandinavian ancestry
            >In contrast, we find the (supposed East Germanic-speaking) Polish Wielbark individuals, to be modelled primarily as Eastern Scandinavian. However, most later individuals associated with the originally East Germanic-speaking groups, the Ukrainian Ostrogoths and the Visigoths of Iberia, appear to be locals (Supplementary Note 6.9.6). Two exceptions are from Goths from Iberia, who genetically fall on the Northeast-Southeast Baltic cline (one of which carries a Northern European Y haplogroups), suggesting an origin in North East Europe, but not Eastern Scandinavia specifically.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            That paper is confusing. I couldn't find a proper PCA and these ancestry bars are fricked.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >Two exceptions are from Goths from Iberia, who genetically fall on the Northeast-Southeast Baltic
            So the conclusion is obvious. Goths originated in Scandinavia and those that still had NorthEuro genetics are the ones that did not mix in Iberia. Those that appear southEuropean mixed in Iberia. Why? Because if Goths arrived in Iberia after 200 centuries of wandering around Europe....those 2 Goths that still have NorthEuro genetics prove that Goths arrived "pure" northeuro because after 200 years it is impossible that there are 2 "pure" Goths because they were a group of people that traveled together and these 2 "pure" goths would have a more mixed genetics.

            Anyways I would like to know where they took the samples for Iberia. Do you have them or can you tell us the link?

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            https://i.imgur.com/3jC9pEE.jpg

            Here is an intredasting new study that proposes Pre-Germanic having been brought over the Baltic Sea to East Scandinavia first and then spread west and south from there.

            https://www.biorxiv.org/content/10.1101/2024.03.13.584607v1

            >Steppe Ancestry in western Eurasia and the spread of the Germanic Languages
            https://www.biorxiv.org/content/10.1101/2024.03.13.584607v1

            site details are in the supplement

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Where can I find this study? I don´t see the link.

            Just looking at "Estevillas de la Torre" we can see 2 R1b (probably DF27, so already mixed with natives) and an I (probably not mixed with natives yet). The thing here is if some Goths arrived "pure" to Iberia it is because they arrived without mixing (it would be almost impossible for a group of people to remain unmixed with the rest for 200-300 years).

            So, those that are "southern euro" have already mixed in Iberia but Goths came "pure".

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Depends how long they were outside of Scandinavia. Wielbark samples already had distance from Scandinavia and that was basically the first place they settled before pushing south/east for centuries.

            Franks and others were much closer to Denmark/Frisia, slightly less out-group marriage and possibly less integration of non-Germanic groups.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            The majority of Wielbark samples are 100% Scandinavian.
            https://eurogenes.blogspot.com/2023/11/wielbark-goths-were-overwhelmingly-of.html

            Where can I find this study? I don´t see the link.

            Just looking at "Estevillas de la Torre" we can see 2 R1b (probably DF27, so already mixed with natives) and an I (probably not mixed with natives yet). The thing here is if some Goths arrived "pure" to Iberia it is because they arrived without mixing (it would be almost impossible for a group of people to remain unmixed with the rest for 200-300 years).

            So, those that are "southern euro" have already mixed in Iberia but Goths came "pure".

            The preprint is linked in each of those posts.

  2. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    Goths are a cautionary tale of evolution. They are completely extinct and barely even have any genetic trace in Iberia. Coexistence is not an option and migrating to highly populated areas is never a good idea.

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      There is much we can learn from the Goths but I strongly disagree with this. More than anything it was their cruelty and constant infighting that cause so much of their trouble. Their violent ascent against groups like the Sarmatians, and eventual subjugation by the Huns on the Steppe had twisted them it seems, when they should have been able to consolidate under a single ruler more like other successful groups. And sure, they didn't leave much autosomal DNA perhaps but they made their mark on history in the face of a dying empire and a world of uncertainty.

      Many noble families from Iberia were of Gothic stock, during and after the Islamic period and many who fled to the courts of the Franks played a crucial role in the Carolingian Renaissance. Some of the fiercest Ghibellines were of Gothic origin. These people helped reshape Europe and contributed to it being something that can go on to do greater things than previously imagined, all through sheer Vril.

      • 1 month ago
        Anonymous

        >And sure, they didn't leave much autosomal DNA perhaps but they made their mark on history in the face of a dying empire and a world of uncertainty.
        The issue is this is of little to no value. Goths flat out went extinct, they are extremely lucky we even have a text in their language. They destroyed themselves by entering the Roman Empire.

        • 1 month ago
          Anonymous

          Win some, lose some.

        • 1 month ago
          Anonymous

          I am Gothic (visigoth) from a rural area of Castilla where the goths heavily settled for 200 years. Plenty of my relatives are blond and blue eyed.

          Guess what? On DNA tests we get 0% germanic despite looking like this.

          The "germanic" input in Spain is inside (not differenciated) the "Spanish" category.

          And Gothic was spoken in rural areas of Castilla until IX century. I could guess that the elite of each gothic settlement knew latin to trade with Romans or any other natives. At the same time the bulk of the settlements did not know latin so they continued to spoke Gothic for some centuries until total mixing happened.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >The "germanic" input in Spain is inside (not differenciated) the "Spanish" category.
            The problem is that Germanic haplogroups are noise level in Spain. Your phenotypes are indigenous.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            90% of the Goths settled in the most unpopulated areas of Spain (rural Old Castilla) in places that are very small villages with 100-200 inhabitants 5 km away from one another.

            Nobody has done any DNA test there. Most DNA test in Spain have been done in big cities (capitals of provinces) and almost nothing in rural areas and Spain was 90% rural until 1950s.

            If they tested in certain areas in rural Castilla they would probably get 20-30% of Germanic haplogroups. There have been found many visigothic graves in those areas. Most of the Goths were just farmers and lived far away from the main cities. Obviously most of these villages are a mix of the early population plus Goths so 70-80% of the people on these villages look Atlanto-Med or similar but you can still see a sizeable amount of blondism and blue eyes and even the short upturned nose that they only way that appared here is because of those Goths settlements.

            Let´s also remember that the area where the Goths settled was named "Gothic Fields" for centuries and now it is named "Tierra de Campos" or "Campos Góticos".

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            It would be nice if you turned out to be right but it seems odd that no evidence of any of that has turned up yet, but is found in all other European countries.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Just take a look at this village of Segovia where there was a visigothic grave with 8000 bodies...

            https://www.abc.es/viajar/destinos/espana/abci-gran-necropolis-visigoda-pueblo-segovia-saquearon-nazis-201909020123_noticia.html

            Rural Castilla have lots of these visigothic graves (every year a new one if found and I guess there are hundreds that have never been found).

            I live next to a visigothic settlement and the cemetery has not been found yet.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Yes, there's indeed no evidence of gothic presence in Spain, apart of the art, the history, the manuscripts, the architecture, the settlements, the coins, the culture, the religion, the language, the laws, and etc, etc. The ~200k goths, men, women and children, that settled during early 500s a.d just dissapeared overnight without leaving any trace. In fact, they only appeared in 711a.d to be defeated by the muslims and then dissapeared.

            Kek.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            We are talking about genetics, and there is no significant genetic trace of Goths in the Spanish population today.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            There obviously is, it's just minoritary considering they were an estimated ~200k over an estimated total population of 5M.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Sure, at noise level, but that might as well come from Andalusian Germans at that point. The important thing is that it is basically irrelevant.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Well, then I guess it's as irrelevant as franks in France, since there were about 500k of them vs the ~6M galorromans, and a good chunk of those 500k not in France proper but in what is now Belgium, Netherlands and Germany.

            Noise.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            France has not been satisfactorily modelled yet, but Frankish admixture in any case is not overwhelmingly high, yes.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            That is the believed speculative number but no one know it for sure since new settlements and graves are being found each year in Spain.

            And the issue here is that from 409 until 589 (Recaredo allowed mixed marriages after Goths changed from arianism to catholicism) the 200.000 could have reached to 300-400.000 (they lived in isolated communities and only married among them until the conversion to catholicism).

            Also considering that the bulk of them went to live to isolated rural low population areas they could perfectly be a 20-40% of certain areas of certain provinces. Let´s also remember that if Spain had 5.000.000 people just Cordoba is said to have 650.000. So discounting the big cities, rural Spain could have 3.000.000 (all of Spain).

            Sure, at noise level, but that might as well come from Andalusian Germans at that point. The important thing is that it is basically irrelevant.

            This is basically a myth. Most of those Germans that came for repopulations died of famine (read about it) and were living in 3-4 villages in Jaen.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            I'm also Nordic Goth, my ancestors pillaged the Iberomoors and settled here. For some strange reason, my paternal lines are exactly similar as with the natives and my autosomal ancestry looks more inline with Iberian than Scandinavian, but that doesn't bother me. Germanic supremacy, hail Hortler!

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            I mean, it's the V-VI century so approximate numbers is the best you can get, both the total ~5M for Hispania and the ~200k for Visigoths. I very much doubt the Visigothic population doubled since the total population remained basically the same throughout all those centuries, about the same ~5M. We're talking an era with high mortality rates, coupled with famines, outbreaks of plagues, unrest and raids and so on. So there was barely any population growth for centuries.

            And btw, 5M might not look like much but those 5M in Hispania represented the largest population in all of Western Europe after the Justinian campaigns decimated Italia.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            Well, I did not consider the plagues and faemines but the most important factor is that from year 400 to year 600 they basically lived in very specific areas in rural Castilla and in those areas they probably were a not small % of the total population.

            The issue here is that blond hair and blue eyes are recessive so even if a 5-15% of the population in those areas have these traits there is a 30-35% that can produce them (it is quite common to have a blond blue eye relative and their 2 siblings are average Spanish looking.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >I am Gothic (visigoth) from a rural area of Castilla
            Extremely based

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >I am Gothic (visigoth) from a rural area of Castilla where the goths heavily settled for 200 years.
            Peak larper

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            https://i.imgur.com/sLdbkY1.jpg

            90% of the Goths settled in the most unpopulated areas of Spain (rural Old Castilla) in places that are very small villages with 100-200 inhabitants 5 km away from one another.

            Nobody has done any DNA test there. Most DNA test in Spain have been done in big cities (capitals of provinces) and almost nothing in rural areas and Spain was 90% rural until 1950s.

            If they tested in certain areas in rural Castilla they would probably get 20-30% of Germanic haplogroups. There have been found many visigothic graves in those areas. Most of the Goths were just farmers and lived far away from the main cities. Obviously most of these villages are a mix of the early population plus Goths so 70-80% of the people on these villages look Atlanto-Med or similar but you can still see a sizeable amount of blondism and blue eyes and even the short upturned nose that they only way that appared here is because of those Goths settlements.

            Let´s also remember that the area where the Goths settled was named "Gothic Fields" for centuries and now it is named "Tierra de Campos" or "Campos Góticos".

            I am Mexican American with grandparentage from Zapotecas and I look like this along with my Peruvian brother in law

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            https://i.imgur.com/sLdbkY1.jpg

            90% of the Goths settled in the most unpopulated areas of Spain (rural Old Castilla) in places that are very small villages with 100-200 inhabitants 5 km away from one another.

            Nobody has done any DNA test there. Most DNA test in Spain have been done in big cities (capitals of provinces) and almost nothing in rural areas and Spain was 90% rural until 1950s.

            If they tested in certain areas in rural Castilla they would probably get 20-30% of Germanic haplogroups. There have been found many visigothic graves in those areas. Most of the Goths were just farmers and lived far away from the main cities. Obviously most of these villages are a mix of the early population plus Goths so 70-80% of the people on these villages look Atlanto-Med or similar but you can still see a sizeable amount of blondism and blue eyes and even the short upturned nose that they only way that appared here is because of those Goths settlements.

            Let´s also remember that the area where the Goths settled was named "Gothic Fields" for centuries and now it is named "Tierra de Campos" or "Campos Góticos".

            https://i.imgur.com/26fC1xe.jpg

            I am Gothic (visigoth) from a rural area of Castilla where the goths heavily settled for 200 years. Plenty of my relatives are blond and blue eyed.

            Guess what? On DNA tests we get 0% germanic despite looking like this.

            The "germanic" input in Spain is inside (not differenciated) the "Spanish" category.

            And Gothic was spoken in rural areas of Castilla until IX century. I could guess that the elite of each gothic settlement knew latin to trade with Romans or any other natives. At the same time the bulk of the settlements did not know latin so they continued to spoke Gothic for some centuries until total mixing happened.

            I am Argentinian descended from barrio-eros from the Andes and I too, look like a splitting image of this.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            I refuse to believe the guy on left with the mic isn't a Nordic Bronze Age reconstruction image. Even his hair is similar.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            He is just as pure Spanish as Antonio Banderas and both of them would score 100% southern Euro on DNA tests.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            I found one of his videos:

            He participated on a musical contest.

          • 1 month ago
            Anonymous

            >Goths (visigoth)
            they were probable mix of slavs and balts

      • 1 month ago
        Anonymous

        >Some of the fiercest Ghibellines were of Gothic origin
        sounds interesting, care to share some names?

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      There is much we can learn from the Goths but I strongly disagree with this. More than anything it was their cruelty and constant infighting that cause so much of their trouble. Their violent ascent against groups like the Sarmatians, and eventual subjugation by the Huns on the Steppe had twisted them it seems, when they should have been able to consolidate under a single ruler more like other successful groups. And sure, they didn't leave much autosomal DNA perhaps but they made their mark on history in the face of a dying empire and a world of uncertainty.

      Many noble families from Iberia were of Gothic stock, during and after the Islamic period and many who fled to the courts of the Franks played a crucial role in the Carolingian Renaissance. Some of the fiercest Ghibellines were of Gothic origin. These people helped reshape Europe and contributed to it being something that can go on to do greater things than previously imagined, all through sheer Vril.

      Real catalans were goth hell

  3. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    the divisions were far closer to each other and were borderline mutually intelligible compared to Germanocuck Yuropoor languages of today

  4. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    West Germanic people made lasting Empires which is why their languages are the most prominent. The vandals were destroyed and scattered, same with the Ostrogoths and the Visigoths were unstable and reeled in the face of the Franks. It’s not rocket science.

  5. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    >The unimportant west germanic languages
    The Franks were not unimportant. They built the foundation of basically everything in the modern world.

    The Goths were good at warfare and conquest, but not good at nationbuilding, there isn't much more interesting to say about them.

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      >They built the foundation of basically everything in the modern world
      Anglos as well or perhaps moreso in the modern sense. East Germanics amaze me but the brightest stars burn the fastest.

  6. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    Has anyone got any book recs or the like for reading up about this stuff on the history of indoeuropean languages?

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      "The Horse, The Wheel, and Language", and "How To Kill a Dragon".

      Keep in mind that this field is a living one and is in near constant evolution.

  7. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    east germanics = yamnaya
    west germanics = corded ware

  8. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    >And why was it the 'east' germanic people that conquered west and southern europe? Where were the west germanic people at the time?

    They did too. Detachments of Suebi, Franks, Saxons also migrated into roman lands, along with some other detachments of minor tribes like Heruli and Rugii. Thing is, east germanic tribes were larger, more compact, more organized, more used to warfare and the frontier spirit as they had been moving and expanding since the first century and more importantly they had been displaced by the Hun event unlike the western germanic tribes, so they were looking for secure lands to settle. I mean they weren't looking to conquer the Roman Empire or anything, they were looking for safe lands to settle and have the Romans frick off and leave them alone, which the Romans ofc didn't. They also moved in mass, the whole population, whereas for western germanics is just detachments of saxons or suebi that migrated, excess population so to say, with a raiding and looting spirit, the main body of the saxon or alemannic population remaining in their lands east of the Rhine.

  9. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    goths got dwemered

  10. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    >Steppe Ancestry in western Eurasia and the spread of the Germanic Languages
    https://www.biorxiv.org/content/10.1101/2024.03.13.584607v1

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      More interesting because of non-Germanic samples. I checked out supplement and apparently they tested the Lady of Vix.

  11. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    Germans literally abandoned their language when they went to usa just because they didn't be seen as traitors in ww1 and ww2, and this was in a time in wich they had german written books and newspapers. So imagine back then when most people were illiterate, maybe Germans didn't care that much of their language to begin with.

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      Bullshit. There was massive anti-German campaign in USA done by Anglos.

      https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anti-German_sentiment

      >The Justice Department attempted to prepare a list of all German aliens, counting approximately 480,000 of them.[53] The Committee of Internment of Alien Enemies recommended sending them to internment camps, though the idea was opposed by the War Department and the Attorney General.[54] More than 4,000 German aliens were imprisoned in 1917–1918. The allegations included spying for Germany and endorsing the German war effort.[53]

      >When the United States entered the war in 1917, some German Americans were looked upon with suspicion and attacked regarding their loyalty. Propaganda posters and newspaper commentary fed the growing fear. In Wisconsin, a Lutheran minister faced suspicion for hosting Germans in his home, while a language professor was tarred and feathered for having a German name and teaching the language.[54][55] The Red Cross barred individuals with German last names from joining in fear of sabotage. One person was killed by a mob; in Collinsville, Illinois, German-born Robert Prager was dragged from jail as a suspected spy and lynched.[56] Some aliens were convicted and imprisoned on charges of sedition for refusing to swear allegiance to the United States war effort.[57] Thousands were forced to buy war bonds to show their loyalty.[58]

  12. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    >enter a thread expecting comfy intergermanic discussion
    >polish nationalists shout "they were slavs!"

    • 1 month ago
      Anonymous

      Where?

  13. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    >Gothic, vandalic, burgundian, these were the major german nations in the period of migration, but all their languages are gone now. The unimportant west germanic languages have inhereted the earth. And why was it the 'east' germanic people that conquered west and southern europe? Where were the west germanic people at the time?
    Germcucks they got raped into extinction by Slavs

  14. 1 month ago
    Anonymous

    Because they weren't interested in spreading their language, only their semen

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