How are Germanics and Slavs related historically? Where they ever a single people?

How are Germanics and Slavs related historically? Where they ever a single people?

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  1. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Slavs were never people, let alone a "single" people. They're just roaches that eat up resources that could be used by actual people.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Ok Hans, cope harder

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >Slavs were never people, let alone a "single" people. They're just roaches that eat up resources that could be used by actual people.
      >t.

  2. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Maybe Goths and Rus of Kiev is the only thing i can think of

  3. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    There was probably a lot of mixing between them in todays central europe

  4. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Slavs are created by a pairing of Germanic males with Hunnic or Turkic females.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Quite the opposite, some say that the German nobles during the hunnic times would often have "asian eyes" and happa apperance due to Hunnic men often fricking german and slavic women

      Atila himself had a Goth for himself

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Nah, their y-DNA haplogroups are literally 100% Scandinavian. He got defeated by Goths/Gepids and then got killed and his sons also got killed. Even if people were noble they still returned favours lolol

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Still coping, germanoid

          Even nowadays, turks rejoyce the wonders germanic women have to share. Their warmth and their wombs to either MED BVLLS or TVRKISH KARABOGA

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Yes, the huns were notorious for sexual slavery of germanic women, but ironically it was a germanic sex slave that poisoned atilla while he was passed out drunk after inseminating her multiple times...

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Wrong. Slavs were created by Iranic males taking Germanic females. DNA doesn't lie.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        slavs were made after swedish females were taken by subsaarian african males

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        'Iranic' people were perpetually enslaved by Huns and Turks until the Goths freed them.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Goths "freed" them by getting raped by the huns instead

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Fact is 'Iranic' people were a complete non-entity at this time. All the politically relevant empires or states were either Turkic or Hunnic. There were Alans in Europe but they were vassals of the Goths.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        This is true...about 2000 years ago lol

        But from the roman times until as recently as the 1800s (when turkic institutionalized slave practices of slavs was finally abolished, it still occurs but on a far lower frequency), they were ravaged by hunnic, turkic and mongol males for thousands of years.

        In fact the name "slav" itself is a result of their heritage as a slave people - this is where the english word "slave" comes from

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          No.
          Slav means word and glory.
          Slav means somebody who speaks the same language as you as opposed to say a Nimetski, such as a German, one who talks like mumbling.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            SlavBlack person cope

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Its the other way around.

      Slavs are turkic or hunnic males + germanic females. In fact, germanic and later slavic female slavery by the turks and huns and mongols was institutionalized for thousands of years.

      Germans were originally a central asian people similar to iranians but were pushed west by the huns and turks, germans have an earlier wave of significant hunnic male admixture, it was well documented by the romans that the hunnic males routinely had several germanic female sex slaves each.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Yes, the huns were notorious for sexual slavery of germanic women, but ironically it was a germanic sex slave that poisoned atilla while he was passed out drunk after inseminating her multiple times...

        The Slavic male haplogroups are all the same as Scandinavians, even the R1a clade is related Northwestern Europe and there is no Hunnic or Turkic y-DNA at all.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Where do you think R1a comes from? Scandinavia?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Like we are talking about history now you are talking about the Ice Age?

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Slavs are actually sub-saharan Africans painted white.

  5. 2 years ago
    Anonymous
    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Goyims*

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        did my best but I dont speak israelite

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        *goyim is plurar, goy is singular

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          >Yesssssss GOYIMS, believe the pilpul!

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            https://www.wordhippo.com/what-is/the-plural-of/goy.html

  6. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Europe was inhabited by different branches of hunter gatherers who were replaced and mixed with the anatolian farmer groups who migrated into central europe. With the exception of scandinavia. The yamnaya-descended eurasians from the eastern steppe corded ware-culture then migrated into europe as well and replaced and intermixed with the already mixed-hunter gatherer/farmer populations. That formed the southern european ethnic groups, They also migrated into scandinavia but the hunter gatherers there could not be subdued and the two groups instead mixed with each other and formed the scandinavian ethnic groups who would then form the germanic ethnicity by mixing with the western europeans in germania and the baltic archipelago. The corded ware who remained in eastern europe mixed with various steppe peoples and became the slavic group, altough the ones who inhabited the baltic coast intermixed with the germanics through trade and raiding.
    Swedish raiders then founded what would become the first russian dynasty so there has been significant mixing and fighting between the two. The mongols fricked everything up and permanently changed the slavs and the russians and set the two groups on different paths. But that was something they did to everyone they conquered.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      you picture might imply that those languages aren't all derived of a single root language.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >Russian
      >slavic

      Lol

      Also where is celtic or greek ?

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >Russian
        >slavic
        >lol
        yes they are moron. literally the slavest slav along with poles

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          They are tatar mongolic israelite mutts
          Not slavs

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >israelite mutts

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            holy shit look at that fricking beak

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Funnily enough, the population with the most israeli noses (Górale or the Podhle Highlanders) was considered to be Aryan by the Nazi Germans.
            Also, Yiddish is basically German in denial.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Yiddish is basically German
            Here we have another cuckold mutt thinking LANGUAGE is what matters. It doesn't

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >omits the inconvenient main argument
            >attacks the sidenote
            You, my good sir, are indeed a /misc/ack.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            My Ukrainian mother in law is also vehemently against Russians being Slavs, even going as far to say they're really Scandinavians (which they look nothing alike). Meanwhile genetic test includes the obvious, they're Slavs.

            https://i.imgur.com/CEIVyB7.jpg

            How are Germanics and Slavs related historically? Where they ever a single people?

            See

            you picture might imply that those languages aren't all derived of a single root language.

            Indo European connection is the most likely given that genetic testing seems to imply these people were created not during the iron age but during the bronze and before the bronze age. Not that genetics have explained everything, but they're the best reference. I do feel that genetics will be less important in the future because linguists are usually vindicated about population migrations. Luwian seems to have had some sort of reverse linguistic influence on Indo European languages via the black sea rather than the Yamnaya dispersal, which I think will become outdated in the next 10 years as DNA testing gets better.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      that is a terrible, horrible, moronic map

  7. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Slavs and to a lesser extent are basically the exact opposite of Latinos in Central and South America: male mongol genes + female slav/germanic genes instead of male iberian genes + female native/african genes

    I think this is where the stereotype of amwf having better success than wmaf: amwf creates people like the slavs or germans whereas wmaf creates people like the mexicans or brazilians

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      We can't do anything if asian wymen want to rape is to death

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >male mongol genes
      ah yes famous mongols with european branch of R1a haplogroup

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        unironically yes. genghis khan's paternal line had r1a from west to east admixture

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Cope
          genghis was c2b

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          R1a aryan rulling over N1a and Q asian cattle

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            But the Han still won and are mutting them out of existence, like they did the Manchus.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It's because the Chinese have a borg like quality. Steppe bigger Tibet, Manchu, Black Yi, and Mongols would often prey on han but a few generations living in China completely changes them to han Chinese.

  8. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >german or slav mentioned in the op
    >thread is full of rape fantasies
    Please stop using this site as your autistic internet battlefield.

  9. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Both are from male Turks differentiating with different females.

  10. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >Where they ever a single people?
    Yes, about 5000 years ago as shown by linguistic, archaeological and genetic evidence. Germanic and Slavic languages descend from Proto-Indo-European or even a hypothesized Proto-Northwest-Indo-European which was more recent. Their material cultures go back to the Corded Ware Culture (picrel), and their yDNA haplogroups come from R1a-Z645 which is about 5000 years old.

    https://www.yfull.com/tree/R-Z645/
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corded_Ware_culture
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Indo-European_language

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Thank you. I am personally filtering posts that aren't sourced since they're usually from sub 90 IQ chimps

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