Are native European languages more closer to
1. Semitic
2.Turkic
3.Dravidian
4.Native Americans
5.native south Asians
Or any one else have any different answers also what would of ane people spoke like proto Siberian type languages or something else
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If I had to guess I'd say Turkic. This isn't based on any linguistic evidence, but rather the observation than people, genes and languages seems always to radiate outward from central Asia.
How? Are Hungarian and Iranic closers?
>If I had to guess I'd say Turkic. This isn't based on any linguistic evidence, but rather the observation than people, genes and languages seems always to radiate outward from central Asia.
Yeah but the Indo-Europeans radiated outward before the Turks did.
Turkic and Indo-European are probably ANE languages.
Eurasiatic:
Indo-European
Uralic–Yukaghir
Altaic (Turkic, Mongolic and Tungusic)
Chukotko-Kamchatkan
Eskimo–Aleut
Korean–Japanese–Ainu (sometimes included)
Nivkh (sometimes included)
Etruscan (sometimes included)
Algic (sometimes included)
Wakashan (rarely included)
There's some problems with this as Koreans, Japanese have frick all ANE ancestry, but overall it makes plenty of sense for ANE language to be Eurasiatic. You have all Siberian languages here + some Amerindians.
>There's some problems with this as Koreans, Japanese have frick all ANE ancestry,
They do tho
They don't. Not even Y- or mtDNA. I guess they have some Q, but they are like 90% O or O and D in Japan.
Isn’t d from north Eurasians
And Yh today’s Japanese are mostly o and d but the original aniu etc were c which we all know were in Siberia as well
Native Europeans are closest to Caucasians and Middle Easterners.
ANE would have spoken a language similar to Amerindian and Siberian languages.
Thanks what about Turkic tho are they from any of those groups as well
Turkic seems to have developed natively on the Eastern Steppe of Mongolia. It likely descends from an interaction between ANE and ANA (Ancient Northeast Asian) groups.
Yh that’s what I was thinking and have heard before
Nemets (a Twitter guy) thinks the EEFs' language was probably related to Berber.
He also believes the vaccines were necessary and are safe so.. no one shod care what he has to say past this point
Yeah and he said Russia would beat Ukraine in 48 hours. Just ignore his opinions on the modern world and stick with his understanding of historical migrations.
European languages are almost entirely derived from Proto-indoeuropean steppe languages. few exceptions are the basque language and the uralic languages (Hungarian ,samii, fininsh etc) The uralic languages are probably closest to Turkic languages where as the indoeuropean are pretty separate but might have some crossover with the semetic due to indoeuropean civiliastion in the middle east.
Any websites I can look it up also the Sumerians have links to indo Europeans as well have u got any links to that
No, there are some possible loanwords between Sumerian and Indo-European, but they are probably indirect.
Uralic and IE might be related. Their grammars have some striking similarities (in terms of suffixes, pronouns, etc.). IE isn't close to Semitic; they share a decent number of loanwords, but Proto-IE grammar and Proto-Semitic grammar are very different.
Indo-European would be closest to Turkic. Same with Uralic.
Farmer languages could be related to Semitic (Afroasiatic) because a bunch of agricultural terms in Indo-European languages seem to came from Semites.
>native European languages
What do you mean by "native European languages"? If you mean paleo-European languages, they were probably closest to EEF and WHG languages, and ultimately could be related to non-Afroasiatic Near Eastern languages.
Indo-European is closest to Caucasian languages and thus a CHG language, with possible genetic origins in the same non-Afroasiatic Near Eastern languages as the paleo-European languages. It was only uralicized later on through contacts with EHG groups.