Why does Quantum Mechanics support Mind-Body Dualism?

Why does Quantum Mechanics support Mind-Body Dualism?

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  1. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    This shit is like when archaeologists with zero background in or knowledge of psychology try to reconstruct the motivations and mental landscapes of people who lived 2000+ years ago solely with archaeological paradigms.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      What are you talking about?

  2. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    bump

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      It doesn't.

      Okay fine I'll explain. K. Barrett is just one of innumerable idiotic "philosopher" hacks huffing his own farts. For example, in OP's imaged paper he quotes Wigner "it was not possible to formulate the laws of quantum mechanics in a consistent way without reference to consciousness." Except... Wigner recanted that view and it's premised on flatly not understanding "observer" in quantum mechanics has nothing to do with consciousness. Any interaction at all does it, not consciousness.

      Right out the gate, Barrett shows he's an inept moron. He quotes an author who recanted that mistake, and in spite of being a "philosopher of physics" seems to have missed the class that explains "observer doe not mean conscious agent". Wigner did not support that paper or view later in life, because unlike J. Barrett seemed capable of learning.

      He proceeds to quote Wigner a bunch, add nothing, and never once cites any of the innumerable experiments since. Every single experiment assessing any alleged consciousness effect on quantum mechanics has found no effect. At all. This whole paper is a waste of electricity, and this man should not be allowed to draw an income for writing such trash as a professor.

      He wrote an entire paper about a debate from the 1930s-1950s when the answer every single decade since has conclusively shown "interaction causes collapse". Not consciousness. He's a fricking moron.

      He does briefly gloss over a thing he calls "dualism" in hidden variables, but gives them no adequate explanation whatever. You'd want to read about superdeterminism: https://backreaction.blogspot.com/2021/12/does-superdeterminism-save-quantum.html

      "And that’s how superdeterminism works: what a quantum particle does depends on what you measure." - S. Hossenfelder

      No "dualism" required, including his asinine "physical-physical dualism". Read her blog post instead and you'll know a lot more than this dumbass does.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >Hossenfelder
        Do you also have a respectable non-meme source?

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Nobody on sci has read it either. So they don't know why you linked it despite how topical it is, kek.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Most of this post is wrong.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          checked
          dab on the materialists

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Take this (You) as a token of gratitude for the sumery and spitting straight facts.

  3. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Is this about looking at the double slit experiment because that has nothing to do with conciousness with observer they mean something measuring the light or interacting with it

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      moron. It requires a conscious observer to collapse the wave function. Interaction with measuring devices alone can be erased and the wave function restored as shown in the delayed choice quantum eraser.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Meds now, schizo

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          That post is true, interaction alone does not collapse the wave function to a definite state

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >That post is true
            moron. I'm not even reading the rest of your post

            [...]
            If interaction alone collapsed the state, then when the particle-wave moves forward and passes through the material that the two slits are cut into, the wavefuction would touch and interact with THAT materiel/wall, and collapse, and not continue to propagate beyond it, would never pass through the two slits and interfere with itself as it continues propagating and then slap into the back wall where we see the interference pattern. It would collapse the moment it hit the original wall that the two slits are cut into.

            It is not the case that "interaction" causes collapse, as "interacting" with that wall that the two slits are cut into does not collapse the wave-function. The only thing that causes collapse is a form of interaction where information can be collected/gained by an intelligent or conscious observer that can eventually gain information about the state. It is inherently tied to the gain in information from the experimenter and not tied to that gain in information of any non-specific material or measuring device.

            Moronic post based on a complete misunderstanding of quantum mechanics.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Moronic post based on a complete misunderstanding of quantum mechanics.
            No it isn't

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It is, because you think "wave function collapse" is a real thing. Not to mention that you've never studied quantum mechanics and simply write moronic paragraphs based on your moronic popsci knowledge

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >It is, because you think "wave function collapse" is a real thing
            You will not be able to argue you're correct by simply stating that you believe that there is no collapse.
            If you want to believe that all the solutions to the schrodinger equation are actualized somewhere then you can do that but you're just a moron for ignoring reality. Everett is wrong.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I'm not arguing for "Everett" you moron. What I'm arguing for is the standard interpretation of quantum mechanics. Yet another demonstration of your moronation.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The wave-function collapses in QFT

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            This is why we shouldn't let morons use the internet

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Everett is wrong.
            Tell me what's wrong with arguing for your position by simply stating your inclination.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            How do you explain the double slit experiment without wave function collapse

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Placing detectors near the slits causes entanglement of the particles with detectors and kills interference

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What a nonsense interpretation, detectors do not cause entanglement

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >denying basic quantum mechanics
            See

            Hopeless schizo

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Basic quantum mechanics is Copenhagen, you are talking off your ass from an alternative view, not mainstream view.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What is the detector that is entangling with the particle?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Rephrase your question more coherently please

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What is the detector that entangles with the particle, that's perfectly coherent.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It's the detector near the slits. I don't know how you could possibly not understand this.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Why does the detector near the slits, which is itself a system of particles, entangle with the particle, but not any other system of particles that interact with it? What makes the detector near the slit entangle when it interacts but not anything else (the detector at the slit is not the only thing physically touching and interacting with the particle as it propagates through space)

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >but not any other system of particles that interact with it?
            Who said other things don't? The screen at the other end entangles with the particles too for example.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So then why does the particle only lose interference when entangled with the detector, and not any other system?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Which other systems are you talking about here?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Any and all other particles that interact with the particle as it propagates in the experiment.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            They too can cause loss of interference on how strong those interactions are. If you throw a baseball through a double slit, it doesn't interfere with itself because of the interactions between the 10^23 particles of the baseball.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            *depending on how strong

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So then why do you need the detector to kill interference? Why do you never see a loss of interference caused by the various atoms composing the air or the photons and other particles being showered and interacting with the particle as it moves across the space of the experiment.
            Why do you only see loss of interference with this detector? The detector does not uniquely touch or interact with the particles compared to any other system of particles during the experiment.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Or even the first wall wherein the double slits are cut into. Why does that not cause a loss of interference? It interacts with the particle just as much as the detector does

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            For the purposes of the experiment, the wall can be treated as an infinite potential barrier with two wells corresponding to the two slits. That's how the walls influence the particles

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Space background radiation, slit wall molecules, unperfect vaccum, graviational waves, electron magnetic fields. Are you telling me all this is unknown until we know about it? What's the point? Like what purpose would it serve for wave function collapse to exists?
            inb4 computational optimizaiton
            inb4 it just is jezzzzz
            inb4 because quantum bible
            inb4 wouldn't work'd otherwise! (aka i don't know alternatives yet)

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >They do, if these interactions are strong enough. Your premises are all wrong
            What is the threshold for a strong interaction?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            There is no "threshold". As the interactions go from weak to strong, the pattern on the screen changes continuously from a wavelike pattern to a particle like pattern

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Weak and strong here mean how many particles are being entangled?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Not necessarily, what needs to happen is that the relative phases between different positions of the particle needs to be suppressed for the interference pattern to disappear.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The detector at the slit does this stronger than the other particles in the system?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Yes, because that's what it would be designed to do.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What is the design that does this?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            See https://aip.scitation.org/doi/pdf/10.1063/1.3529947
            for example

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Factors I can think of:
            1. Many microstates corresponding to one macrostate. Coherent state has finite precision, so perturbation below that precision will drown in noise.
            2. Signal to noise ratio. Signal can drown in ambient noise.
            3. Interaction happening in discrete quanta means weak force may not make it in time to deliver one quant.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          That post is true, interaction alone does not collapse the wave function to a definite state

          If interaction alone collapsed the state, then when the particle-wave moves forward and passes through the material that the two slits are cut into, the wavefuction would touch and interact with THAT materiel/wall, and collapse, and not continue to propagate beyond it, would never pass through the two slits and interfere with itself as it continues propagating and then slap into the back wall where we see the interference pattern. It would collapse the moment it hit the original wall that the two slits are cut into.

          It is not the case that "interaction" causes collapse, as "interacting" with that wall that the two slits are cut into does not collapse the wave-function. The only thing that causes collapse is a form of interaction where information can be collected/gained by an intelligent or conscious observer that can eventually gain information about the state. It is inherently tied to the gain in information from the experimenter and not tied to that gain in information of any non-specific material or measuring device.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >where information can be collected/gained by an intelligent or conscious observer
            Right so if the photon/electron passing near detector would trigger detonation of nuclear bomb without human knowing beforehand, will it detonate?

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >Interaction with measuring devices alone can be erased and the wave function restored as shown in the delayed choice quantum eraser.
        Posts like this illustrate why pop-soi should be banned.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          >pop sci pleb hasn't heard of von Neumann Wigner interpretation

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            More like misinterpretation of basic quantum mechanics

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >COPEnhagen pleb doesn't even realize the incompleteness of his interpretation
            Many such cases. Sad.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Your trump references stopped being funny 5 years ago. Grow up

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >le quantum eraser

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Said the woman from the country that needs literal "what are the woke implications of this" lines in every study about physics kek
          Is this confirmed deboonked?

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >Is this about looking at the double slit experiment
      No
      >they mean something measuring the light or interacting with it
      This is also not true

  4. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >her physical state
    Women cannot collapse the wavefunction.

  5. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Same reason why earth supports flatearthers: brainlets.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      But this is wrong. There's no connection between flat earth and why people think the earth is flat, vs why people think the inherent dualism of the unobservable that is the wavefunction and the observable that is an eigenstate compares to the unobservable of free will and the observable of a brain performing computations etc.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >eigenstate of free will
        That's it, you have to take your meds right now

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          I never said anything about an "eigenstate of free will"
          Please learn how to read properly

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            No matter how I read your post, it will never mean anything

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It has a very easy to understand meaning

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >the wavefunction and the observable that is an eigenstate compares to the unobservable of free will
            Lol!

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Hopeless schizo

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            No argument. There is nothing I'm saying that is against QFT or the results of any experiement

  6. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Schizos support dualism. Quantum mechanics supports materialism.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      This is not true

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >Quantum mechanics supports materialism.
      > In the Standard Model of particle physics, matter is not a fundamental concept because the elementary constituents of atoms are quantum entities which do not have an inherent "size" or "volume" in any everyday sense of the word.
      >Due to the exclusion principle and other fundamental interactions, some "point particles" known as fermions (quarks, leptons), and many composites and atoms, are effectively forced to keep a distance from other particles under everyday conditions; this creates the property of matter which appears to us as matter taking up space.
      No it doesn't, because matter is not a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics. Fields are fundamental, matter is not.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Field is matter. And quantum properties behave the same way as in everyday life: e.g. a cat doesn't have an inherent definite "position", because it has non-zero size, and you can't decide which point of the cat's body is its position, so this concept is nothing new.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          >Field is matter
          How? Because you say so?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            An object that exists on its own and moves mechanistically, pretty sure that's matter.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Why is that matter? Because you say so?
            Also, the field doesn't move at all

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Looks like matter. What else can it be? Also it's observed as macroscopic objects and those were historically believed to be material.
            >Also, the field doesn't move at all
            It moves according to the Schrodinger equation that describes change of the field's state over time.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Also it's observed as macroscopic objects
            Electrons don't even have a radius, you cannot ever look at them. Can you show me a macroscopic object that no radius like it happens in quantum physics? Thought so.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Electrons have finite size in string theory. Zero size was just an assumption within measurement precision.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            A shame string theory has no experimental evidence to back that up

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Because our measurement equipment can't differentiate small electrons and zero size electrons. In any case electrons are waves in the field, so it doesn't make much sense to talk about their size.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >In any case electrons are waves in the field
            Electrons are also particles it makes sense to talk about their size, since size and volume are everything for matter but electrons have no such thing, materialism is false.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Expecting arbitrary physical properties just because you slapped an arbitrary word "particle" on it is semantics. But semantic tricks can give you anything too, they are meaningless.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            They are particles because that's what QED says and QED is the most succesful physical theory in existence after General Relativity, is not because I arbitrarily slapped the word "particle" into anything

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            "They are because my ideology says so" is not a valid answer. If your theory was any good it would explain the why.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            QED is not an ideology is an empirically tested theory in physics
            >it would explain the why.
            Do you have a theory that explains this "why" you are talking about

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Tests currently don't differentiate between small particles and zero size particles. And I bet QED tests are consistent with QFT, where electrons are waves in the field.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            They are particles in a sense they are quantized waves in the field, not in sense you want them to be.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Matter has inherent volume and size, fields have no such thing, they aren't matter, other things that are also not matter are for example: dark energy, photons, gluons, gravitational waves and dark matter(dark matter is only hypothetical matter), materialism has no basis in reality because matter is not fundamental.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            > materialism has no basis in reality because matter is not fundamental
            Too bad materialism has nothing to do with matter

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >materialism has nothing to do with matter
            What?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Yes

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Materialism has only to do with matter.
            Materialism is not a philosophy about just any mechanistic entity or object

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Good, then materialism has nothing to do with physics, since you don't have any substance that comes first before anything.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I think you should take your meds

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Not an argument

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Pretty sure field confined by volume V has volume V.
            >materialism has no basis in reality because matter is not fundamental
            You just have crazy definition of matter.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So define "matter" according to you, go ahead

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            An object that exists on its own and moves mechanistically.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What do you mean exists on it's own?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Independently from human mind, souls, schizos, observers and other astrological things like that.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What do you mean exists on its own, all energy is subject to the CMB, they don't exist on their own.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >all energy is subject to the CMB
            That's not how energy works

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What do you mean "exist on their own"?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I wasn't the one who said that, I was just pointing out that you don't understand physics

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I also wasnt the one who said anything about energy. I asked

            What do you mean exists on it's own?

            which you didn't answer

            Independently from human mind, souls, schizos, observers and other astrological things like that.

            This is not a definition, you're just claiming that you have a delineation called "exists on their own" and you're defining it based on another thing called "does not exist on their own" without making up a difference.
            What evidence do you have that the particles of the standard model exist on their own? Because you assume they do? (there is no experimental evidence that can be used to argue that they exist on their own)

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            You asked "what do you mean by X" when I hadn't even stated X. By clarifying that, I did answer your question.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Ultimately precise definition is quantitative definition. A quantitative definition of, say, electromagnetic field, is given by quantum electrodynamics.
            >Because you assume they do? (there is no experimental evidence that can be used to argue that they exist on their own)
            Because this assumption is consistent with observation. One evidence is inability to create a pile of gold by sole power of imagination.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Energy came from the big bang, the cmb confirmed that, it is how energy works.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          >Field is matter.
          Said no physicist ever
          >quantum properties behave the same way as in everyday
          There is nothing like quantum entanglement in everyday life for example, is something completely alien to classical physics

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Classical analogy for entanglement is synchronized clocks showing the same time at any time.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Both schizos and quantum scientists support this, it's shitfest of delusions triggered by overflow of scientist EGO working at CERN, while including occasional crack smoking sessions and DMT intakes triggering extremely "self-verified" fantasies about the real world.
      You all do this so there is no one to verify you, that's the problem.

  7. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    It's the opposite, quantum mechanics kill all forms of dualism for good: body obeys the Schrodinger equation, and mind apparently follows it, which means mind obeys the Schrodinger equation, which means mind is tightly bound to body, i.e. supervenes on matter.

  8. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >Why does x
    Frick you

  9. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    The name is quantum MECHANICS. So quantum mechanics is an inherently mechanistic view of the universe.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Mechanistic =/= material

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          No it isn't, you're the one using words incorrectly.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Physics isn't about words, it's about things. If you want to argue about words go to

            [...]

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What is a thing?
            Just because you are saying "this is what it is because I say so!" Doesn't mean anything.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >What is a thing?
            It's a composite of the elementary entities in physics.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So then you claim that the standard particles are things, because they exist on their own and behave mechanistically?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >standard particles are things?
            You mean the particles in the standard model? Of course

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Why? Because you say so?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Uhhhh wtf, every physicist agrees that they're things
            You claimed that particles exist "on their own" without an observer but all physics says the opposite of this

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Looks like you have to (re)learn physics

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I don't. You're stating that you take it true that particles exist "on their own" with no evidence of this

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >That's not how the big bang works, that's not how energy works, that's not how the CMB works, that's not how science works
            Saying "nuh uh" is not an argument

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Not an argument, leave IQfy and never comeback you obviously don't belong here

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Yes, since IQfy is filled with schizos now, that would be ideal for me.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            You are clown for the simple fact of bringing up a concept like "materialism" which is purely philosophical concept and has nothing to do with science or math

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I'm not interested in your schizophrenia >>>/x/

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Show me a peer reviewed scientific paper that says materialism is science or true, you won't find any, materialism is not science and math, moron.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Look dumbfrick, you are not qualified to talk about science and math since you don't know how energy works and have made absurdly stupid comments about it ITT

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            If materialism is science or math why you can't provide peer reviewed scientific papers about it, ah right you can't because materialism is only philosophical.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Tell that to OP who started a thread about "dualism" you schizo

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Materialism doesn't have evidence to support it vs. dualism

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I haven't said anything that is against any theory in science. There is literally nothing I'm saying that's contradicted by any experiment or theory.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      That was the original idea, just look standard model and "quants", it was supposed all to be more precise edition of classical physics.

      Nowadays it's mental house of scientists, go ask them at which of evolution we became "conscious observers" and watch them sperg out with diarhea because they don't deny evolution either.

  10. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Because infinity is the analytical pedagogy of a set in general. Data is observed. Consciousness is the only thing that learns. The only thing that can be measured is real materials. Real material is not fake material. Just move the not sign and return the same business logic for the content of the multiple points in a space, that is a specific measurement, not anything else. Anything else starts with you. You qua the points of quantum mechanical identity are an unobserved function on a dataset determining a point in multiple scenarios (business logic determination through conditioning). Maybe because your brain is immeasurable and psychology is pseudoscience. Or because quantum mechanics is pop sci for anon- a distraction to the newhomosexuals. The newhomosexuals not being acquainted with the Freud comics being printed on the site determining the object state of the observer, which is manifest and concrete, rather than not being so. So my philosophical question is: is time a straight line to the observer, is this chronology random at best with respect to randomhood? What are the layers of consciousness, in their heierarchical structure? How does being an algorithm produce an unknown outcome? I think we know the answer to that. Maybe because the conscious data has to take up space and is at the center of this infinite universe, always fluctuating in this concrete form. Then why can't it simply be shadowed by a superior function in a general category? That is, we emit our shadows all the time as traces, and have an unconscious collective account of this basic id and it's derivatives. The human expression as one as factual. It is nothing more than a probing. We are nothing but an instrument of the universe, a hand of a body of this thing we cannot observe, but describe (as a body). We have a specific task and it's context is life. Because that's the nature of qualia in the dimensions of the cave, communicable in whatever form it takes (perceptions-finite universal variety).

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      'it doesn't happen' 'failure to communicate'
      'origins'
      Origin of speech, e.g.

  11. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Why do the anons who can't define what they're saying consistently or defend their side call other people schizos?

  12. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    No. even the biggest proponent of it, Wigner, denounced it later in life. it's just anthropocentrism.

  13. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Why did this thread devolve into a debate about materialism or whatever?
    The question about why the detector is the only thing that entangles with the particle remains unanswered (the paper linked as an example of the continuity of the devolution from an interference pattern didn't answer the question).
    The materialism argument isn't what this thread is about

  14. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    [...]

    What do you mean "no it isn't"? The particle only entangles with the detector? Why is the detector special vs. all the other particles in the experiment? Because you say so? Take your meds

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Define entanglement for me then, moron.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Your time's up. You failed to define entanglement.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >Your time's up
        Not in my frame of reference.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >>no mention of hilbert spaces
            >>no mention of tensor products
            >>reference to irrelevant (to the definition of entanglement) things like interactions
            >>schizophrenic accusation towards others
            Because all of that applies to all particles in the system.
            You have yet to explain why the detector is privileged vs all other particles in this formalism.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >uhhh because... *schizo rambling*
            How predictable and boring

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            That's not schizo ramblings. You have yet to explain why the detector entangles with a particle to the point where it loses interference but all the other particles do not.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It's a result of the Schrodinger equation.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Where in the Schrodinger equation does the detector become privileged over all the other particles in the system?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >I have already given up replying to you.
            Because you can't answer the question.
            There is nothing in the formalism of qm that causes the detector to entangle with the particle over all the other particles in the system.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The detector is the operator in Schrodinger equation

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            When it interacts with the particle.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            All the particles in the system interact with each other.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            They interact in different ways, and different interactions have different results.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >they interact in different ways
            How do the particles of the ion beam that the detector is built out of interact with the propagating particle in a different way from all the other particles that interact with it do?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The beam has shorter distance to the particle. Also it's not just beam, the detector amplifies this interaction to macroscopic scale.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >The beam has shorter distance to the particle
            So do many other particles in the system that interact with the particle as it moves

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            They don't work in the same way, the detector works in a different way from other objects in the system, it has different structure.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What structure does the detector have that causes it to kill interference when it interacts with the particle that the other particles don't have?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Probably one connected with amplification of interaction.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So it comes down to increasing the number of particles in the system, or bosonic quantum excitations are privileged for some reason?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >1. Many microstates corresponding to one macrostate. Coherent state has finite precision, so perturbation below that precision will drown in noise.
            This is just trying to draw a line between quantum and classical objects
            >2. Signal to noise ratio. Signal can drown in ambient noise.
            What is the difference between a "signal" and "noise" from the perspective of nature? All things are signals, there is no noise.
            >3. Interaction happening in discrete quanta means weak force may not make it in time to deliver one quant.
            This makes the most sense, but again you're basically just trying to say that by stacking up more and more particles you increase the chance that the weak force can make it in time to deliver a quant. So it's about the number of particles in the system again.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >This is just trying to draw a line between quantum and classical objects
            It's a quantitative description why perturbation drowns in noise. It's observer's macroscopic state which is entangled with the particle, so distinction is relevant.
            >>2. Signal to noise ratio. Signal can drown in ambient noise.
            >What is the difference between a "signal" and "noise" from the perspective of nature? All things are signals, there is no noise.
            The difference is that a system can't react with a directed macroscopic tendency as a reaction to noise. Not sure what can be done with low s2n ratio, it's often assumed to be fatal, LIGO manages to cancel some forms of noise, but has to eat others.
            >more particles you increase the chance that the weak force can make it in time to deliver a quant
            Or reducing distance. The detector additionally amplifies interaction, so maybe reducing distance alone is not quite enough or we could have nonamplifying detectors.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >It's a quantitative description why perturbation drowns in noise. It's observer's macroscopic state which is entangled with the particle, so distinction is relevant.
            So you think there is a difference between classical systems and quantum ones. Why?
            >The difference is that a system can't react with a directed macroscopic tendency as a reaction to noise. Not sure what can be done with low s2n ratio, it's often assumed to be fatal, LIGO manages to cancel some forms of noise, but has to eat others.
            No, there is no such thing as a "reaction with directed macroscopic tendency" because there is no separation between classical "macroscopic" objects and the particles that constitute them.
            Noise doesn't actually exist in this universe.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >So you think there is a difference between classical systems and quantum ones. Why?
            Because they behave quantitatively different. Learn coherent state.
            >Noise doesn't actually exist in this universe.
            Then learn signal processing science.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Because they behave quantitatively different. Learn coherent state.
            "quantitatively different" just means there are more or less. What number of these particles are needed to make it behave as a detector?
            >Then learn signal processing science.
            This is about how us humans can interpret a signal. Nature doesn't interpret signals, it just evolves according to the wavefunction.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The Hilbert space bullshit is trivial when talking about QM. Just saying that entangled states are represented with tensor products is a non-answer. It's the formalism but it doesn't tell you shit about what an entangled state actually IS or how you get particles entangled.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Just saying that entangled states are represented with tensor products is a non-answer.
            Wow you sure showed me with this completely wrong definition of entangled states. Any more wrong statements about basic physics you have to offer?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            > Any more wrong statements about basic physics you have to offer?
            "The speed of light is constant"

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I did not post a definition and nothing I said was wrong. Keep seething, kid.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I do not know who you are but I can guarantee that 100% of the posts you've made on IQfy ever are wrong.

  15. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Reminder that Wave function collapse always happens, this is the Copenhagen view, everything else is alternative trash.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      No, copenhagen is trash. Cope and hang.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          What's wrong is that you don't understand copenhagen or quantum mechanics. Stupid larping drone.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            You haven't said a single thing that is relevant in this thread

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Copenhagen doesn't even define observation, it's inherently trash due to that alone. It also can't model all meaningful situations.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Not that moron, but you're moronic too
            >doesn't even define observation
            It's not anything special
            >It also can't model all meaningful situations.
            Name one

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >It's not anything special
            What's relevant is absence of definition.
            >>It also can't model all meaningful situations.
            >Name one
            EPR experiment, delayed choice experiment, Wheeler's friend experiment for starters. Specific things vary depending on what ad hoc hypotheses you come up with for other things.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >What's relevant is absence of definition.
            Why? Do you think it's newtonian mechanics job to define what a house is?
            >EPR experiment, delayed choice experiment, Wheeler's friend experiment for starters.
            All these are trivially modeled. The only possible problem with copenhagen is maybe that it's not straightforward to apply it to the universe as a whole

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >It's not anything special
            What's relevant is absence of definition.
            >>It also can't model all meaningful situations.
            >Name one
            EPR experiment, delayed choice experiment, Wheeler's friend experiment for starters. Specific things vary depending on what ad hoc hypotheses you come up with for other things.

            Anyway, my last word on the topic is "there is no "collapse" in the copenhagen interpretation". People who think that there is, whether they are using it to attack it or attack other interpretations, are all uneducated morons. You can now continue to flood this thread with your schizophrenia.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            there is collapse of the interference pattern. There is still a pattern but its disturbed basically. And its not two blobs as frequently depicted.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            A house can be reduced to its parts and newtonian mechanics will still model it objectively, exhaustively and consistently. Observation has primary relevance to modelling, because it causes collapse - objective phenomenon, not having a model for this phenomenon means copenhagen doesn't model reality and you have to resort to an ad hoc hypothesis about reality, because copenhagen doesn't tell anything about it. But if you have to guess reality from pure abstract thought, then your theory is trash.
            >All these are trivially modeled.
            What? The first two give trashy results and the third is undecidable.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >A house can be reduced to its parts and newtonian mechanics will still model it objectively, exhaustively and consistently.
            How? The ensemble of particles organized together into what we would call a house can't be derived from first principles or purely from the particles and their interactions or which molecules they form etc.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It does: reductionism.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Just saying "reductionism" doesn't prove that reductionism is true, and doesn't mean you can derive a house from first principles or the interaction of matter. All you're doing is saying "reductionism". That doesn't mean anything.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The result is quantitatively the same with and without reductionism. I guess it means reductionism is true.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >The result is quantitatively the same with and without reductionism
            It isn't

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I said

            [...]
            Anyway, my last word on the topic is "there is no "collapse" in the copenhagen interpretation". People who think that there is, whether they are using it to attack it or attack other interpretations, are all uneducated morons. You can now continue to flood this thread with your schizophrenia.

            was my last word, but...
            >A house can be reduced to its parts and newtonian mechanics will still model it objectively, exhaustively and consistently
            Yes, and quantum mechanics can do that too and it's still not obligated to give any definition of "house", which is nothing other than some silly human convention. The same holds for "observation".
            >collapse - objective phenomenon
            Not really, this is just a popular misunderstanding

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The particles that you're defining and ascribing behavior and properties to via the formalism of QFT are also just silly human conventions.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Some aspects of their definitions are just conventions but that does not mean the particles and the associated fields themselves are conventions

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >that does not mean the particles and the associated fields themselves are conventions
            Why not? They are mathematical conventions used to describe the results of an experiment that we can't model with perfect accuracy.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >Why not?
            What do you mean why not? Why would they be?
            >an experiment that we can't model with perfect accuracy
            That's not the case. The quantum mechanical model is assumed to be perfectly accurate

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >What do you mean why not? Why would they be?
            Because that's what they are. You are making up a convention called QFT and you're using conventions in math and conventions about your ideas of objects in this theory.
            >I assume it to be perfectly accurate therefore it is perfectly accurate
            what?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            QFT is just a particular class of quantum theories which are known to not be the full story anyway. The framework of quantum mechanics itself is more general. I don't know why you're so hung up on QFT in particular.
            >what?
            Yes, unless you believe in hidden variables (which are not taken seriously by most people), what I stated is true. There is no evidence of there being a "more accurate" description than the quantum mechanical one.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I'm hung up on QFT because it has the best prediction power.
            You also inherently do not have access to a complete description of the system in QM so it can't be perfectly accurate. There not existing a more accurate description means that there is no such thing as a truly accurate description of the system.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Disproven assertion

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            What do you mean "disproven assertion"? That's just accepted qm

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >I'm hung up on QFT because it has the best prediction power.
            This is just meaningless reply to what I asked
            >You also inherently do not have access to a complete description of the system in QM
            The wavefunction is the complete description.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So the complete description inherently lacks information about the system and can't be used to make predictions about where the particle will end up deterministically

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Yes, it is complete in the sense that it is mathematically complete. This need not be the same as "deterministic for human purposes".

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >This need not be the same as "deterministic for human purposes".
            I define "complete" to mean "state S_n+1 can be deterministically predicted by state S_n for all states S_n by an external observer O given a sufficient amount of knowledge k of the system S_n"
            If you have a reason to disagree with this, why?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            The state is predicted by the evolution operator, not by observer.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            So the evolution operator doesn't have a complete description of the system

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            S_n isn't the time function

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Only according to dumb copeBlack folk. In reality the wave function contains all information about the system.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I use definion of copenhagen with collapse. I don't know what copenhagen without collapse means.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >EPR experiment
            kek, Bohr won the debate

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            It wasn't a debate moron

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Wrong and uneducated about basic quantum mechanics.

  16. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Haven't even looked at this paper and I know this conclusion is BS. Science & Math is metaphysically agnostic, but you can put metaphysical interpretations/presuppositions into scientific theories to get some very interesting metaphysical conclusions.

    Most people think scientific theories rest upon boring metaphysics (physicalism, materialism, causal reductionism, mechanism, behaviorism, and often determinism) but this simply isn't the case.

  17. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Quantum mechanics is perfect example of israeli "circular proof" method explained in Mein Kampf

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