gammer functions and factorial

How can we define the factorial ( a multiplication of numbers a lot) if timesing by 0 is undefined? Why are we allowed to do this

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  1. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >if timesing by 0 is undefined
    >timesing
    >a multiplication of numbers a lot
    >Why are we allowed to do this
    Stopped reading right there.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      well you stoped reading right there because i stoped riting the post there. So lol. Maybe if you cant prove me wrong stop crying abour it.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >abour
        Stopped reading here.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          >stoped
          >stoped
          >riting
          >stop crying abour it.
          Stopped reading right there.

          racists poltards mad because they realise the gammer function isnt allowed because of 0 undefined. Lol. Why dont you do some reading

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >stoped
        >stoped
        >riting
        >stop crying abour it.
        Stopped reading right there.

  2. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >if timesing by 0 is undefined
    wat

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Go ahead nd try to tell me how to define a timeseing by zero. Its impossible to do. You have nothing of something and you nothing do a timesing of it to nothing. Goa head and try and do it for me bubby.

  3. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    [eqn] n! = int_0^infty x^n e^{-x} dx [/eqn]
    The RHS makes sense even if n is not a natural number so you can use this identity to extend the factorial to a function for all positive real numbers.
    [eqn] Gamma(z) = int_0^infty x^{z-1} e^{-x} dx [/eqn]

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      what are you talking about?? dont come in my threads and try to mak up some bullshit to try and confuse us because you cant prove me zero timesed by zero is possible ok

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Sirs how can 0 times 0 be undefined if then what is solutions of [math] 0 = 1/0 [/math] and 0 = 1?!

  4. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Good morning sirs

  5. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    From now on everyone on Sci has to call the gamma function the gammer function

  6. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    I think you should be more concerned with the grammar function

  7. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    because we define 0! as equal to 1

  8. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Don't mind them brit, they are just foreigners trying to make fun of you for your typing because they don't know how brits speak. Don't give in to them.
    Also for your question:
    The gamma function is just an extension of the factorial function. Designed so that something similar to the factorial function could be used for numbers other than the natural numbers.
    The factorial function itself is only defined for the natural numbers. The definition of the factorial function of a number is the product of all natural numbers from one up to that number.
    As you can see, this definition does not apply to 0. Because the factorial function is not defined there.
    There is a common practice to define 0! to be 1, even though the factorial function I mentioned does not apply to it. The reason it is done is because 0! comes up in studies of combinatorics.
    The factorial function can be written as n! = n times (n-1)!
    the reason the value of 0 is set as 1 is because if you pretended that 0 was a valid input in the factorial function, and tried inserting 1 into this relation you would get.
    1! = 1 times (1-1)!
    which would be 1 = 0!
    So therefore giving 0! factorial the value of 1, could fit in well with the definition of factorial.
    The gamma function follows a similar idea, it extends the idea of the factorial function along the real numbers, instead of just being for the naturals, but is constrained to being a smooth curve.

  9. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Gem

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