How do Scots and English speak the same language with different dialects when they always had separate kingdoms since early medieval times?
How do Scots and English speak the same language with different dialects when they always had separate kingdoms since early medieval times?
Scotland had large Anglo Saxon settlement and Norman influences too
Scotland never had Anglian settlement
Yes it did
No it didn't. Do you mean Anglian territories were annexed into Scotland? At no point in history did the Kingdom of Scotland have its districts colonised by Anglicans.
See above
>no point in history did the Kingdom of Scotland have its districts colonised by Anglicans.
>Anglicans
That's a different thing to Anglic; one's a language group, and one's a religious group. Northumbrian (Old English) is why Scots (the language invaded by American furverts) exists.
>Scots exists
It does
I assume you're going to deny the Glorious revolution happened and that William of Orange was Dutch and that the Black Acts were ever enacted etc, so you can be wrong about several invasions, both religious and linguistic. Have at it, I'm sure you can re-write history just by sperging out enough on IQfy, which is exactly why America doesn't exist.
Also you're just sad its obvious I meant Anglians
>Scotland never had Anglian settlement
The Lowland Scots have connections with Frisia, going back centuries, and the original homeland of the Angles was Southern Jutland, not that far from Frisia.
They are the successors to the Anglish Kingdom of Northumbria.
homie, the capital is EdinBURGH
Edinburgh was founded by a Welsh Prince then took over by an Anglian one and finally 500 years later it was annexed into Scotland
So, it did have an ''Anglian settlement''. Get raped.
No it conquered English lands.
Its a totally different idea.
That's like saying if you pick up a gun used to kill someone you are a murderer.
You don't have any sense at all.
Alba filled a vacuum after the Norse invasions where the Northumbrians had reigned and colonised for centuries. English speakers became the absolute majority in the kingdom, shifting power from the north east to the central belt within a few cnturies. Goidelic or Bryttonic languages had next to no affect on the English spoken by Lowland Scots, which had taken over as the language used by the court and populace alike by the 11th century. The fact that the Scots dialect was influenced so much by Norman English to the point that the two are easily mutually intelligible after so many years split into seperate kingdoms shows that Scotland has always had an all powerful 'Anglian settlement'.
So... Scotland didn't have Anglian settlement it annexed areas of England, the kings adopted English and spread it that way cheers!
homosexual, you've getting upset this whole thread the moment anyone mentions Anglo/Norman influence in Scotland. You even deny the influence on place names like Edinburgh lmao. No one has said that Scotland has been colonised with English settlers, people have just pointed out very clearly that the predominant ethnic group in Scotland is the English speakers. You reek of celtgaygery, remember to put on sunblock before going outside.
I never denied Scotland had Norman or English influence I just said at no point were any districts of the Scottish kingdom colonised by Anglians.
You've been getting upset this whole thread whenever anyone mentions the impact of Anglo/Normans. You even deny said influence in place names like Edinbugh lmao. No one is saying Scotland was colonised by English speakers, just pointing out the relationship between predominant English speakeing Scots and other West German speaking people (Flemish, English, Frisians). Of course Scotland hasn't been settled by English speakers, for as long as its been called Scoland, its been controlled by English speakers. You reek of celtgaygery, remember to put on sunblock before you go out.
>No one is saying Scotland was colonised by English speakers
Lmao I'm out if you're going to do this
the don't, or at least, they didn't.
They kept getting invaded by the same people. It's the same reason that the Frisians sound alike even though they're speaking a different language and are on a different landmass.
>They kept getting invaded by the same people. It's the same reason that the Frisians sound alike even though they're speaking a different language and are on a different landmass.
The Lowland Scots and the Frisians, have been trading partners going back centuries and Belgium and Flanders.
The oldest paintings possibly showing golf and curling are “Burgundian” I think by Pieter Bruegel the Elder.
A very complex history that your average burger couldn't even begin to comprehend let alone appreciate.
Translation: I don’t know it
I don't care to lay it all out. There's a plethora of resources freely available to you. Stop being a lazy homosexual.
>how do two countries that share a tiny island and have porous borders and shared history end up speaking closely related languages
dunno anon. complete mystery
>France and Germany share borders
No language spread
>Slovakia and Poland border each other
No language spread
>Greece and Macedonia border each other
No language spread
and Germany share borders
>No language spread
good grief
I remember a thread here where 90% of anons admitted to not reading history books and this thread is just further proof.
Which is sad since history had a lot of cool shit happening and a good place for ideas if you want to write some fiction.
Damn you're stupid
Bruh
It’s accent.
>How do Scots and English speak the same language with different dialects when they always had separate kingdoms since early medieval times?
Scotland has two distinct fricking languages you moron.
Lowland Scots, which is closely related to Frisian and old English.
And Scots Gaelic, which is spoken in the Highlands.
There is also a dialect spoken in the area between the Highlands and Lowlands, and distinct dialects spoken in separate Island areas.
Everyone in Scotland speaks English
TFW there's an alternate universe somewhere wherein Britain became a Latin speaking Romance language nation.
>TFW there's an alternate universe somewhere wherein Britain became a Latin speaking Romance language nation.
After the Romans left Britain, Latin was still a spoken language for centuries, and “Latins” were listed as one of the ethnic groups in Britain.
Would it really be that different? English is pretty deep into being a Romance language without actually being one.
What?
>Would it really be that different?
yes, we'd have gendered nouns and all kinds of stupid shit like that
i mean frick that. romani eunt domum
Can someone translate this question for me? Is OP asking why do the English and Scots speak something so similar despite different kingdoms, or why they speak so dissimilar despite proximity?
>why do the English and Scots speak something so similar despite different kingdoms
It is stupid question, and I suspect that OP is one that is going around saying that Germanic people never colonized Scotland
>Scotland was colonised by German people because it annexed territory colonised by German people
At last I truly see
The same people governing England also governed Scotland. Their national enmity was, and still is, a friendly rivalry between branches of the same bloodline. This goes for Ireland and Wales, of course, and in fact, the entirety of Europe, including Russia (hell, throw in the Ottoman Empire!). The bloodline is even wider spread than that, but anons aren't ready...