I don't get why we refer to this as the Ottoman Empire when people of the time called it Turkey.

I don't get why we refer to this as the Ottoman Empire when people of the time called it Turkey. Same with China anf Iran where we refer to them by the dynasty in power at the time, which were never used by contemporaries. We don't call European empires the Hohenzollern Empire or the Bourbon Empire.

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  1. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    well technically it's just the kayi beylik.
    a group of nomad villagers who became an empire

  2. 2 weeks ago
    Sage

    WE actually do call it the Bourbon or Hohenzollern Empire.

    • 2 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Yeah wtf

  3. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Because the ruling class referred to the entire empire as either just their domains (Devlet-i Alîye-i Osmânîye) or just (Sublime Porte), showing how the Ottomans did not think of it as a Turkish empire and just their empire. It's why soo many minorities held power in areas where the majority hated them, the Ottoman practice of relying just on merit actually destroyed them unlike in the west where merit based rule was the start of a financial boom.

  4. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    westerners were calling it turkey. the official name is in the picrel.

  5. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Because we get everything from old time british propaganda that got wedged into their history books. Sucks knowing the truth doesnt it. Same with the “byzantine” empire. Really fricks woth historical understanding.

    • 2 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Seething brown opinion detected...analyzing...opinion discarded...

    • 2 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Yes, the Byzantine Empire should really be called Greece, as it was called by most Europeans at the time

      • 2 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        I'd settle for Rhomania or Rumelia as a middle ground, distinct from Rome but showcasing that they werent a Greek empire, which is absolutely true just with how almost all Emperors were Anatolians or Armenians. Modern Greece has little to do genetically with either the Anatolian Byzantines or the Greeks of old due to how much Slav dna they have

        • 2 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          But the Hellenic Anatolians are in Greece now, so I don't see the logic.

          • 2 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            No, the current inhabitants of Greece are largely Hellenized Slavs and only half of the expelled population was from western Anatolia (Turks genocided about 400,000 before they could leave too), the other half were Turkish speaking Christians and Pontic "greeks" who cluster with Armenians. This chunk of the expelled population is not even a large part of the population anyhow since they werent that many and a large chunk went to the USA because Greece was bankrupt and couldnt construct homes for them.
            t. from Utah where we received a large chunk of these Anatolians following ww1 and they are brown as frick

          • 2 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            >the other half were Turkish speaking Christians and Pontic "greeks" who cluster with Armenians.
            This is the population that you used to assert discontinuity between Byzantium and Modern Greece, so this is really counterproductive if anything. It's clear that Greece reflects the Byzantine Empire.

          • 2 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            Byzantine empire was 80% Anatolian, with even in its death throws holding hard to Constantinople because that was all that mattered, the "Greeks" here chose to learn Turkish than flee also btw, around 90% remained following the Greek-Turkish war.
            Modern Greece is 80% Hellenized Balkan Slav with the Anatolians and Hellenized Turks forming ghettos in Athens

  6. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    We call it the Habsburg monarchy.

  7. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    We did and still do refer to most of those c**ts by their dynastical names, and when they arent it's because they insisted on it, like the Turks who ruled Iran insisting all delegates call their empire, the lands of Iran that are protected by (Qajar, Safavid etc)

  8. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    It was literally the personal domain of the head of the House of Osman, who just happened to be Turkic.

    The French and German monarchs were rulers in virtue of their titles as "King OF France", or "King OF the Germans/Germany". That is, they derived their legitimacy from being the head of a particular tribe of people. The Ottoman Sultan was literally "Sovereign of The Sublime House of Osman". What gave him legitimacy was that you owed his family fealty.

  9. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    >when people of the time called it Turkey
    but they didn't not even the ottomans themselves

  10. 2 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    The Ottomans didn't call it Turkey and frankly held the Turks in contempt for most of their rule. Turks were a rebellious, unruly, backwater people who were useful as little more than cannon fodder.

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