Why did greeks and romans need another foreign script like aramaic and proto-sinaic to finally civilise them unlike Indians who developed themselves using their own home made alphabet and script?
Where’s the glory in achieving anything without your own culture?
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Brahmi's derived from sinaic too, honey
There is no proven connection, all the more indians already had indus valley script. While the connection with greek and latin script is very clear.
>durr you need to come up with your own letters instead of borrowing your neighbors' perfectly fine letters
>durr you need to come up with your own innovations instead of being culturally dominated by different people
Whats this? Looks cool
Land/trade/exploration charter issued by a Chola King. Idk what century but probably classical era?
Apparently they made these documents out of copper plates and "stamped" the ring with an emblem. Maybe a royal seal of some sort. There were probably paper copies at the time, but this would last longer and be more official
>culturally dominated
Thats what Greece did
Explain then why India remained a backward shithole throughout its whole existence
Like greece until egypt civilized them... then remained a shithole the next 1800 years until EU gibs
Doesn't matter how and why. The fact remains that India is, and always has been a backward shithole throughout its whole existence. Let alone that Greece is relevant historically, something that India never was.
How did Egypt civilize Greece?
Indian alphabet came from Aramaic, moron
No it didn't, the conection is wishful thinking
Cope Rajeet
>India
>ever not being perpetually subjugated
>ever not adopting the invaders culture
You are a sad man and the threads you post reek of shame and self loathing.
Low iq
Greek used its own script at first, the Greek alphabet known today was adopted after the greek dark age.
>hurr pre-greek = greeks