Why do so many translations of Greek works leave terms untranslated? I.e hexis, logos, etc..

Why do so many translations of Greek works leave terms untranslated? I.e hexis, logos, etc.. If I wanted the Greek I'd get a Loeb! It just makes the translations look simultaneously pretentious and plebian since people who actually know what hexis and logos mean could just read the Greek anyway and don't need the English, so the only people it appeals to are pretentious philosophy students who know like 10 Greek words but no actual Greek, i.e plebs. Of course there's always the picrel adjacent footnote like "hexis means habit"...then why not just fricking translate it as that...

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  1. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Take your meds

  2. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    The only time it’s justifiable is if you need to use more than one word to translate it, to maximize elegance

  3. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymouς

    The worst is when pseud academics and homosexuals use the term "hoi polloi".
    Just say the masses/people, why go full pretentious and butcher my language with such cretinous antics

    • 4 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Easy there, hoi polloi.

    • 4 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Your language? You're an ancient Greek?

      • 4 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        Xe’s a very angry Anglo

      • 4 weeks ago
        Anonymouς

        No, I speak modern greek. Neither the article, the adjective or its declension have changed at all since then.
        That's how you say 'the masses' or 'many people' in modern greek.

        • 4 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          Well, /i poˈli/ sounds different than /hoi̯ polːói̯/ but they're written the same, yes.

        • 4 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          >'the masses' or 'many people' in modern greek
          So the meaning's changed then.

        • 3 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          you lost a whole ass case since then, not to mention whatever the frick you guys did to the feminine plural article.

  4. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Sometimes, translating a term leads to misunderstandings.
    An example is liberal Christians saying love is love...

  5. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    most fancy words you are using are copied from greek and latin because they are superior in their description. Old English lacked terms for most higher things

    • 4 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      A lot of the words Old English had were displaced.

      • 4 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        yes but read this anon

        Because it's easier to highlight the conceptual framework that the Greeks used when you preserve key terms that they used. For exmaple:
        >KJV translates "logos" at the opening of the Book of John as "the word", yet logos also meant something much deeper to the Greeks: language, logic, reason, proportion, account, etc. Another good example:
        >Hexis (ekho) is a state of possession that also shares linguistics roots with another metaphysical term of import: metechein (meta + ekho), from which we get Plato's "participation" as in "participation in the forms."
        All these nuances are almost completely lost in translation if you do not look back on the original Greek because we do not share the same constellation of meaning in English.

        Greco-Roman's were highly civilized with advanced concepts that we didn't have, so the words were copied

  6. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    what?

    • 4 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Evidently you've never read Plato translations done by Straussians

      • 4 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        Do you like them or hate them?

        • 4 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          They're good I just find this practice annoying

  7. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Because it's easier to highlight the conceptual framework that the Greeks used when you preserve key terms that they used. For exmaple:
    >KJV translates "logos" at the opening of the Book of John as "the word", yet logos also meant something much deeper to the Greeks: language, logic, reason, proportion, account, etc. Another good example:
    >Hexis (ekho) is a state of possession that also shares linguistics roots with another metaphysical term of import: metechein (meta + ekho), from which we get Plato's "participation" as in "participation in the forms."
    All these nuances are almost completely lost in translation if you do not look back on the original Greek because we do not share the same constellation of meaning in English.

  8. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    Most translations of philosophy should do the same.

    If you're interested in philosophy you can learn a few foreign words. Not a single concept in Being and Time should be translated.

    • 4 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      >Not a single concept in Being and Time should be translated.
      So it just shouldn't be translated at all? Surely every word refers to some concept, except perhaps for grammatical words.

      • 4 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        >Surely every word refers to some concept
        No, most is normal descriptions and grammar.

        • 4 weeks ago
          Anonymous

          "Most" isn't referring to the mathematical concept of "majority"? "Normal" isn't referring to the concept of normality? And so on.

          • 4 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            They're clearly not concepts in the philosophical tradition or coined by Heidegger.

          • 4 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            They are concepts that appear in the book, though.

          • 4 weeks ago
            Anonymous

            Not the same thing, moron.

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      lol that’d be like those israeli Bible translations, where every noun is in Hebrew basically.
      >And it shall come to pass, that when they make a long blast with the keren hayovel, when ye hear the sound of the shofar, Kol HaAm shall shout with a teruah gedolah; and the Chomat HaIr shall fall down, and HaAm shall go up every ish charging straight in.

  9. 4 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    >reading Loeb Diogenes
    >English, as I can't into Greek
    >suddenly a bit that's been translated into fricking Latin
    >no clue what it says, except that it uses the word 'adolescent' like 4 times
    >in a few sentences
    B-Bros?! What have I been saved from knowing?

    • 4 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      Post it here, someone will surely be able to translate it.

      • 3 weeks ago
        Anonymous

        post it to /clg/. Old Loebs translated any sexual stuff into Latin, so it probably refers to pederasty

        I know, it's just funny because there was a lot of other stuff that wasn't translated into Latin; this was the only one, despite all the talk of all these Greeks' "Favourites" and stuff like that.

    • 3 weeks ago
      Anonymous

      post it to /clg/. Old Loebs translated any sexual stuff into Latin, so it probably refers to pederasty

  10. 3 weeks ago
    Anonymous

    What I can't stand is when monolingual English literature "enthusiasts" use mumbojumbo Greek tems that are nonsensical to people who've actually studied the language.

    Take "parataxis" for instance, where in Greek, παράταξις is a military term, pseudointellectuals decided to adopt it as a literary term to apply to English prose style. When I was perplexed at an English literature undergraduate using the term for being placed alongside, which exists almost exclusively in the context of battle formations, he smugly proceeded to tell me that it means a sentence which runs on long, demonstrating his total ignorance of the actual Greek lexical terms in use.

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